Will one or more groups of people be either explicitly or implicitly prevented from voting with the same ease that they were able to in the 2024 elections, rendering the results illegitimate?
Election results don't have to be recognised as illegitimate by the illegitimate powers but rather the degree of voter disenfranchisement undertaken between the 2024 and 2028 elections.
Update 2025-05-07 (PST) (AI summary of creator comment): - The market resolution does not require that voter disenfranchisement swings the national election outcome.
There is no specific quantitative threshold for the proportion of a group's members that must be impacted for the disenfranchisement to be considered relevant to the market's resolution.
1,000
1.00@Siebe no, it doesn't have to have swing the outcome because then there will be too many arguments about factors impacting outcome. There isn't a bar for the proportion of group members impacted, e.g. SAVE act/people without birth certificates (because this disproportionately impacts older poc -some hospitals wouldn't serve them)